So lots of people online cite the fact that, if you don't use condoms and avoid having sex during outbreaks, an uninflected man has a 4% chance of contracting herpes from their sexual partner with type 2 herpes if they have sex every week for a year (2% if using condoms).
However, the same people/ articles/fact sheets say that up to 1 in 4 people have genital herpes (type 2). How can this be if it's so difficult to catch it even when not using condoms?
My ex girlfriend contracted herpes after we broke up, now we want to get back together but I need to fully understand my risk before I make a decision.
Please can somebody help me out or point out if I'm missing something., to me those stats don't make any sense
I can't say I have read up the stats, however I know herpes can only be transmitted when visable sores are present or the virus is shedding (usually felt by itching or tingling), so maybe those who have contracted herpes without knowing have done so when the virus is shedding, it is possible for one to not know thy have herpes as it effects individuals differently and some don't suffer from signs and symptoms
I have herpes, and my partner doesn't. My best friend has had it almost 20 years, and her husband doesn't have it either. My point is, it depends on both your health. It's not an exact science, ever.
Hi Shaun,
I've got herpes since just over a year and I'm still learning about it so I'd be interested to read your sources.
My doctor told me the same as Nelly123, I'm only contagious during outbreaks, more specifically so when liquid is coming from the sore (where the virus is).
But I don't think there is much of a contradiction here?
First, I think it's important to understand what the 4% means. You'll read that the risk of conceiving while using condoms or taking contraceptive pill is greater than 0. As far as I understand, this is not because these means are not 100% effective but because there is always a risk that the condoms break in the first case, or that you forget to take the pill. These things do happen and it makes your chance >0%. The 4% might be due to similar reason; a couple, even when -trying to- using condoms everytime during outbreaks is still exposed to the risk of transmission for similar reason (having sex unaware that you're having an outbreak, indirect contact via hands for example, etc...). So I might be wrong but those 4 and 2% might just represent the risk that you are exposed to even while taking the best measures you can to reduce it.
On the other hand, the quarter of the population that contracted it most probably did outside of stable mono-partner relationship during unprotected sex with partner that probably had an outbreak.
In any case, if your sources are correct, it is a risk you will have to accept if you want to have sex with her again. 4% a year is actually reasonably small if you ask me. As per CM76 comments, some have managed not to contaminate their partner even in 20 years...
Finally remember to try not stigmatize her for having contracted it. She's probably feeling bad enough for the bad decision she made to get it and to now be stuck with it for the rest of her life.
That's my 2c on the question, bearing in my that I'm still in the process of building my own knowledge on the topic. I hope others will be able to bring more solid arguments to understand this.