So I had an IgG test recently, which showed me as HSV-1 positive with a 1.60, and HSV-2 negative with <.90. The doctor said it was likely from a past exposure. I get canker sores and dry lips, but don’t really recall an actual oral OB. Now the reason I got the test was due to a possible exposure, and I was having questionable symptoms. But the several doctors I’ve seen (including Planned Parenthood) have all said it doesn’t look like herpes, and therefore wouldn’t swab test for me, even though I wanted peace of mind from a negative result.
Now there really isn’t much I can do, since it’s mostly healed now, and there isn’t much to swab (PPH refused to swab the rectal sore, and would only look at picture I took of it, saying the same as the urgent care doc, that it LOOKS like hemorrhoids and/or fissures).
So, I can either just assume I have genital type 1, and live as though I do; OR I can decide that without a more prominent OB, that these doctors are right, and that I probably have oral herpes from childhood exposure, and that this is nothing to worry about.
That I just coincidentally had hemorrhoids and fissures at the same time as a folliculitis rash or fungal/yeast infection on my groin and thighs; groin/testicle aches from a potential UTI/prostatitis/urethritis, which worsens after orgasm; and sore lymph glands in my neck, armpits, and groin, whilst having mild flu like symptoms, sore throat, etc… (I’ve had a flu shot and I’m getting a Covid test soon, because better safe than sorry). I feel like that’s just a lot to be happening all at once, after a potential STD exposure (had a hookup who claimed to be clean, but heard from someone else she might’ve had HSV).
I know flu type symptoms can be from HSV also. The only indication it’s coincidental is my IgG test being at 1.60 so soon after possible exposure. I just have no idea where it’s located…
Also, is it really true that if I did have oral herpes since childhood, it’s unlikely to I’ll get it genitally? Like what’s the scientific literature on that? (Not opinion based evidence, but more scientific fact based)
TL;DR; Unspecified HSV1 positive, with pelvic/groin/rectum rash and pain that doctors refused to swab, saying it didn’t look like herpes, which is now too healed to check anymore. Should I assume I have it genitally w/o a prominent OB, or assume I don’t?