My husband and I have been together for 17 years. He had a cold sore about once or twice a year and we never thought twice about it. 5 years ago he had a cold sore and we were NOT careful and I wound up contracting HPV 1 on my genitals. I've only had two outbreaks and they were mild. A few months ago my husband had a nasty outbreak on his genitals, I knew from experience what it was, but it was alot worse than mine. So what are the odds I contracted HPV 1 AND spread it back to my husbands genitals, although I haven't had a outbreak in years and I was under the assumption that if he had HPV 1 all his life and the outbreaks were limited to the oral area the chance of him contracting HPV 1 on his genitals was slim to none. Now I'm wondering if he has cheated and contracted HPV 2. PLEASE provide my with any answeres or advice I feel so lost.
I wouldn't assume he was cheating unless you had other doubts with him. Considering he had always had cold sores, you got it on your genitals I think it's very possible you spread it back to him. I'm no expert or anything but I think it makes sense since you can spread it even without showing symptoms. I'm sorry you both are dealing with that but at least you have each other. You guys need to stick together and be a support system unless like I said you already have trust issues and other marital problems but don't assume he cheated in this case. I think that would be an unfair assumption. Our minds go wild as women try not to overthink.
There is no hpv 2
Throughout your post, you refer to HPV. Don't you mean HSV? Well, that's what I'm going to assume anyway!
Your husband already had cold sores, which should have protected him from getting Type 1 genitally. Exceptions do exist, however. Could also be Type 2 or something else.
Your husband should have seen the doctor at the time and had the lesions swabbed. If it happens again, have him do that.
Obviously I meant HSV, sorry for the typo, but thanks to everyone who replied.
They never swabbed for anything. When I was first diagnosed we knew how I got the virus. My husband had a cold sore and we were irresponsible, we went to the doctor together and I was never swabbed. That was 5 years ago. But recently he had horrible outbreak on his genitals and again the doctor never swabbed for anything. So I was just curious as to how he would have had a genital outbreak when we've been together for 17 years. Thank you for pointing out my typo and for your benefical response.
You could always ask him to do an IgG antibody test for both HSV types. No symptoms required to do the test. If only positive for Type 1, then he was one of the unlucky ones who caught it in both places. If positive for Type 2, that can be safely assumed to be of the genitals and the cause of his outbreak. That is, assuming his genital outbreak was definitely a herpes one.
But best not to assume anything about cheating until you have conclusive test results of some kind.
Type 1 usually causes the acquisition of Type 2 to be mild, even asymptomatic, yet your husband had a bad outbreak. Again, exceptions do exist.
Also, you should note that a positive for Type 1 by IgG can sometimes cause a false low positive for Type 2, so it's important to consider the number and decide whether a Western Blot is necessary.