For context I was 16 when I contracted HSV1 on my genitals from an ex who had a tiny cold sore in the corner of his mouth he didn’t know about. I was devastated at first but now I know it’s not really anything “wrong” and have had no issues with partners because of it. We always use protection and I have always disclosed it way before we started anything.
I am a bit confused after all this time because the doctor who told me I had it seems to be misinformed. She told me since it was on my genitals the HSV1 “turns into” HSV2. So for years I assumed I had HSV2 until a full panel std test I took showed I only had HSV1. I assumed I already had HSV1 anyways since my Mother has had it since childhood and has cold sores as well as my brother having cold sores, and my Father too. I have never had cold sores on my mouth though my entire life. It’s been 10 years and I have never had an outbreak since I was diagnosed and treated for genital HSV1. Since I don’t have outbreaks the doctor said I don’t need to take daily medication for it, and that it’s only for people who have outbreaks often. She said something along the lines of “taking a medication daily for life you don’t necessarily need could be bad for your kidneys/liver”. That also confused me a lot.
I have a new partner and she gets cold sores very rarely on her mouth, so she also has HSV1. We are using protection of course to still be cautious, but I feel like I’ve been misinformed for so long about this and although part of my job is reading scientific papers, they aren’t related to human health at all so the medical jargon can confuse me, Google isn’t very helpful either.
My question is: can she contract HSV1 “again” on her mouth if she already technically had it and I don’t ever have outbreaks? If not having an active sore can someone get a sore on another part of their body if they already have it on one spot? I know technically if you had a cold sore and touched it then your eye for example it can get into your eye, but can it appear on different areas if there isn’t an active sore since you’re already infected with the virus? If she already has cold sores would oral “activate” it again and give her a cold sore afterwards? Can I randomly get a cold sore on my mouth if we kiss and I’ve never had an oral cold sore? Or is it just risk vs reward and the likelihood is low but never zero.
My side note is I’m confused why people who have had cold sores in the past don’t disclose they technically have oral herpes anytime they kiss someone, share a drink/cigarette, or perform oral. Why does it not cross their mind they technically can give it to anyone anytime they share something orally or kiss? It seems to be a pattern I notice that cold sores on the mouth aren’t a big deal and “you can only get it when I have a sore” but for everywhere else it’s a huge deal….